Hi,
Thanks for your interest in my question . Here is the argument
Essentially because $B^2 = 0$.
Just to be clear, saying that $A=B \ mod(N)$ means that $A - B = N \cdot X$ where $X$ is an integral matrix
1) $I \in G$, take k=0
2) Take $A = I + mB + N\cdot X, B = I + nB + N\cdot Y\in G$ , $X,Y$ being any integer coefficients matrices. Write the product and you will see that (because $B^2=0$) we have $A \cdot B = I + (m+n)\cdot B \ mod(N)$
3) For the inverse, you see easily that if $A = 1 + k \cdot B \mod(N)$ then $A^{-1} = 1 - k \cdot B \ mod(N)$
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